We’re going to ask for your undivided attention on this one, as what happened is a bit cloudy , to say the least.
Ready? From what we can tell…Last sold in September ’06 for $1,275,000. Listed in July ’07 for $1,475,000. Re-listed in August ’07 for $1,550,000. Neither time did it sell. Re-listed September ’07 for $1,289,000, reduced October ’07 to $1,249,000, and now in contract (a birdie tells us) over the “original asking”.
So, here’s our question to you. We know which price is referred to as “original”, do you? And we know it will be shown on MLS as “sold over”, but did it? Either way, we’d suggest the buyer’s agent possibly didn’t do their best homework, wouldn’t you?
–2473 Diamond [sfnewsletter property detail]
–Why are Realtors so Arrogant and such a$$holes [theFrontSteps]
–65,000 over, 35,000 under, or 1000 over [theFrontSteps]
I’ve seen several houses sell after many months of being on the market and several price reductions over the original price, yup, the 1st asking price and wondered who in the buyers party was smoking and what.
The only smoking being done here was by whoever priced it at $200k+ over the Sep 06 price. The previous owners had remodeled the place but, according to the agent I spoke to at an open house, the people who bought it did nothing to it, partly because one of the them died.
Why fault those that price properties? Sellers are trying to get the most they can. And in this case it sounds like it happened. Why on earth would you bid over the original asking when the house has been just sitting and gone through many price reductions, hence no prospective buyers until you?
[Editor’s note: Okay. Can’t hold it any longer. The “original” this time was $1,289,000 with the “new” agents.]
how much does it cost to put a listing on mls? who pays for it?